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CISI International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Sample Questions (Q117-Q122):

NEW QUESTION # 117
Which of the following forms part of the Financial Planning Standards Board's six-step process for financial planning?

A. Challenge client's risk appetite
B. Minimise client's tax burden
C. Analyse client's financial status
D. Organise client's financial affairs

Answer: C

Explanation:
# Reference: FPSB Global Financial Planning Standards.

NEW QUESTION # 118
The concept of the Sharpe ratio is to measure the:

A. Amount of performance attributable to a benchmark
B. Effect the annual charge has on fund performance
C. Ability of the fund manager in different scenarios
D. Return above a risk-free rate

Answer: D

Explanation:
* Sharpe Ratio Defined
* The Sharpe ratio measuresrisk-adjusted return, specifically the excess return over the risk-free rate per unit of volatility.
* Formula: Sharpe Ratio=Portfolio Return - Risk-
Free RateStandard Deviation of Portfolio Returns ext{Sharpe Ratio} = rac{ ext{Portfolio Return - Risk-Free Rate}}{ ext{Standard Deviation of Portfolio Returns}} Sharpe Ratio=Standard Deviation of Portfolio ReturnsPortfolio Return - Risk-Free Rate
* Why the Answer is B
* The ratio quantifies the return generated for each unit of risk taken, relative to the risk-free rate.
* Why Other Options are Incorrect
* A. Benchmark performance: The Sharpe ratio does not measure performance relative to a benchmark.
* C. Annual charge effect: Unrelated to fund expenses.
* D. Manager ability: Focuses on risk-adjusted returns, not managerial skill.
* ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Risk-Adjusted Metrics: Explains the Sharpe ratio.
* Portfolio Management Literature: Highlights its use in assessing performance.
ReferencesThus, the correct answer isB. Return above a risk-free rate.

NEW QUESTION # 119
The coupon on a bond has been expressed in real terms, rather than as a nominal amount. This is because:

A. It is a bearer bond
B. It is an unsecured instrument
C. It is an inflation-linked bond
D. Its redemption date is longer than 10 years

Answer: C

Explanation:
* Real vs. Nominal Terms:
* Inflation-linked bonds adjust their coupon payments and principal based on inflation rates.
* Expressing the coupon in real terms ensures it reflects purchasing power rather than face value.
* Elimination of Other Options:
* B: Redemption date length is unrelated to coupon expression.
* C & D: Security type (unsecured/bearer) does not dictate coupon terms.
References:
* ICWIM Module 3: Explanation of bond types, including inflation-linked securities.

NEW QUESTION # 120
Once an offshore foundation is established, who will normally be responsible for making ongoing decisions regarding the operational use of the foundation's assets?

A. The board of directors
B. The trustees
C. The beneficiaries
D. The council

Answer: D

Explanation:
# Reference: Offshore Financial Centres (OFCs), CISI Wealth & Investment Management.

NEW QUESTION # 121
Treasury bills are normally issued with a minimum maturity of:

A. 1 month
B. 1 year
C. 3 years
D. 3 months

Answer: D

Explanation:
* Treasury Bills Defined
* Treasury bills (T-bills) are short-term government debt securities issued at a discount and redeemed at face value at maturity.
* They are typically issued with maturities of3 months (most common), 6 months, and 1 year.
* Why the Answer is B
* While T-bills can have shorter or longer maturities,3 monthsis the standard minimum maturity for most markets, including the UK and US.
* ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Fixed Income Securities: Covers treasury bill characteristics.
* Debt Market Literature: Confirms typical T-bill maturities.
References

NEW QUESTION # 122
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